To view full questions and answers, please kindly visit our site: http://cfaexampreparation.com/1173/29-cfa-level-2-practice-exams-2015-questions-on-portfolio-concepts/
With CAPM, investors receive alter their portfolio by altering
allocation to the market portfolio. APT gives no special role to the
market portfolio
1) Greater uncertainty in forecasts leads to less reliability2)
Statistical input forecasts change over time (time instability)3) Small
changes in inputs can cause large charges in frontier (overfitting),
which leads to unreasonably short positions and frequent rebalancing
E(Rc) = Rf + [E(Rt) - Rf / std dev(t)]*std dev(c)
Avg Variance *[ p + [ (1- p)/N]1) Variance approaches Avg Variance * p
as N gets large2) The lower the correlation, the lower the minimum
variance but the greater the number of stocks needed to reach it
If markets are in equilibrium, risk and return combinations for
individual securities will lie along SML, but not CML. They will lie
below CML because they include unsystematic risk
1) APT explains variations across assets' expected returns in a single
time period2) APT assumes no arbitrage, multi are ad hoc3) The APT
intercept is the RFR
Used to derive inputs for the mean variance model. Regression model
often used to estimate betaR(i) = Alpha + Beta * R(m) + error(i)
Cov(i,j) = Beta(i) Beta(j) Var(mkt)^2
Use statistical methods, in factor analysis the factors are portfolios
that explain the covariance in returns. In principal component models
they explain variance. Don't lend themselves well to interpretation
Beta = Covariance(i,mkt) / Var(mkt)= Corr(i,mkt)* [std dev(i)/std dev(mkt)]
Assumes asset returns explained by returns from firm specific factors (P/E, mkt cap, leverage, earnings growth)
No comments:
Post a Comment